Solved paper of 4th year special pathology GIT

BOLD OPTIONS are correct answers q1.which is the most common site of metastasis of colorectal carcinoma ? a.bones b.liver c.regional lymph nodes d.kidney Q2.regarding colorectal carcinoma .which is the the most appropriate statement? a.carcinoma of proximal colon are annular lesions b.polypoid, exophytic masses are abundant in proximal colon cancer c.polypoid ,exophytic masses are abundant in distal colon cancer d.distal colon cancer rarely cause obstruction Q3.along with colorectal carcinoma ,familial adenomatous polyposis is also associated with which extraintestinal manifestation ? a.pulmonary eosinophilia b.pancreatic carcinoma c.hypertrophy of retinal pigment d.seborrhic keratitis Q4.A 70 year old man diagnosed with colorectal carcinoma ,after some days noticed some improvement using NSAID because? a.of its non-steroidal effect b.it causes inhibition of COX2 c.of its analgesic effect d.it causes production of PGE2 Q5.Mutation in the following gene causes colorectal carcinoma? a.APC/E catenin b.K-RAS /mismatch repair c.DNA mismatch repair d.APC/B (beta) catenin mismatch repair gene Q6.Appendicitis is caused due to obstruction caused by all of the following except : a.feacalith b.gallstone c.villous protrusion d.oxyuriaisis vermicularis Q7.the following feature characterizes acute appendicitis : a.neutrophilic infiltration of muscularis propria b.lymphocyte aggregates in appendical lumen c.antigen-antibody reaction against mucosal cells of appendix d.formation of villous projections Q8.which of the following diseases presents the symptoms like appendicitis making the diagnosis difficult ? a.peptic ulcer b.meckel's diverticulitis c.carcinoma of colon d.ruptured ovarian follicle at ovulation e.both 'b' and 'd' q9.select the correct statement about the tumors of appendix : a.cystadenomas are locally malignant tumors b.mucocele is a precancerous condition c.carcinoids are the least common tumors in appendix d.when peritoneal cavity fills with mucus from an invading cystadenocarcinoma ,it is pseudomyxoma peritoni Q10.choose the correct about morphology of appendicitis a.hemorrhagic green ulceration and green black gangrenous mucosa shows acute gangrenous appendicitis b.normal mucosa is turned bluish in case of appendicitis due to congestion c.no presence of ulceration and foci in accute suppurative appendicitis

SOLVED PAPER of third Year MBBS- BIOCHEMISTRY- "Mechanisms of action of hormones

Q1 Grave's disease is associated with which hormone a) Thyroid hormones b) Androgens c) Catecholamines d) Pituitary hormones e) None of them Q2 The normal daily intake of iodide is a) 200-600 µg b) 300-700 µg c) 100-200 µg d) 400-500 µg e) None of these Q3 Regarding T3 a) T3 appears to be major thyroid hormone metabollicaly b) Although the circulating levels of T3 are much lower than the corresponding T4 levels c) T3 is 3-5 times more active than T4 d) T3 is loosely bounded to serum proteins e) All of these Q4 Clinical features of hyperthyroidism include a) Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and tachycardia b) Goitre, tachycardia and cold intolerance c) Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and loss of appetite d) Exophthalmos, goiter and obesity e) None of these Q5 All hormons increased the no of prolactin receptors on the mammary cell membranne,except a) Estrogen b) Thyroid hormone c) Glucocorticoides d) Progesterone e) None of these Q6 Vasopressin and oxytocin circulate unbound to proteins and have very short plasma half lives, on the order of a) 1-2 minutes b) 2-4 minutes c) 5-8 minutes d) 10-12 minutes Q7 Reverse T3 is a) A synthetic compound given counter the effectsof T3 b) Formed from T4 but has no hormone function c) Formed by isomerisation of T3 d) Formed from T4 and has hormone function e) All of them Q8 Activated phospholipase C acts on a) Phosphatidyl inositol-4, 5-biphosphate b) Inositol-1, 4, 5-triphosphate c) Protein kinase C d) Pl-3 kinase e) none of these Q9 Which of the following does not act via adenylyl cylcase pathway a) GHRH b) CRH c) Prolactin d) Erythropietin e) Both C and D Q10 Tissue level of cyclic AMP can be influenced by a) Hormones b) Nicotinic acid c) Imidazole d) Methyl xanthine e) All of them

Health tips: Avoid Unhealthy Fats

Not all fat is bad for you. Good fats found in foods such as fatty fish, nuts and flaxseeds are essential to your health and ability to lose weight. But when it comes to bad fats, such as saturated fat, it’s important to understand what types of food they hide in, so you can avoid them. High amounts of saturated fats are found in animal products such as beef, milk, cheese, lunch meat, butter and bacon. You can avoid these fats – and continue to eat animal products – with these adjustments to your diet: 1. Choose lower-fat options. These include white-meat chicken and turkey (without the skin) and reduced- fat dairy products. If you eat a lot of red meat, look for the lowest-fat options, such as ground round or sirloin, sirloin steaks, reduced-fat lunch meat, reduced- fat bacon and ham. I also recommend soy versions of traditional meat – they taste great and are much lower in fat. 2. Watch your portion sizes. An appropriate serving of meat is 3-5 ounces – not the 12-ounce prime rib found on restaurant menus. Choose a 3- ounce serving if you weigh less than 150 pounds or a 5-ounce serving if you weigh more than 150 pounds. This equates to roughly the size of one or two decks of cards.

Solved Gynae & Obs test

Q1.mothers with sickle cell disease has _____ times higher risk of eclampsia a.3 times b.5 times c.10 times d.4 times Q2. During pregnancy sickle cell haemoglobin C disease is associated with severe a.liver disease b.anemia c.sickle cell crises d.renal problems Q3.If woman partner is also affected by alpha thalassemia minor,chances of fetus having alpha thalassemia major will be: a.1:5 b.1:4 c.1:6 d.1:2 Q4.Features of preexisting hypertension include all of the following except: a.develops in 2nd half of pregnancy b.no proteinuria c.no features of preeclampsia d. develops after 24th week of pregnancy Q5.In diabetic women the risk of preeclampsia is increased by a.2-4 folds b.10-12 folds c.4-6 folds d.2-3 folds Q6.If HbA1c >10%,then the risk of fetal loss during pregnancy is around: a.50% b.30% c.70% d.100% Q7.Which of the following hypertensive drug should not b used in during pregnancy? a.methyldopa b.labetolol c. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor d.nifidipine Q8. In the second trimester, problems that can make apregnancy high risk are all except: a.Abdominal tenderness of the uterus b.Gestational diabetes c. Preterm labor d. Family history of congenital abnormality or stillbirth e.Premature rupture of membranes (or leaking) Q9.which of the following is the commenest genetic blood disorder in newborn? a.sickle cell anemia b.thrombocytopenia c.coagulaiton disorders d.thalassaemia Q10. Pregnancy-related high blood pressure (preeclampsia) is linked with____________ greater risk of having heart disease in middle age: a. 20% b.65% c. 70% d.31%

SOLVED ENT Test for 4th year MBBS

1.Correct statement regarding Secretory Otitis Media: (a)Commonly occurs in age group of 20-25 years (b)Accumulated fluid is non-purulent in nature (c)Culture of fluid indicates infection with Streptococcus pneumonie (d)Surgical treatment is the only option 2.Symptoms of deviated nasal septum do not include (a)Nasal obstruction (b)Crusting (c)Epistaxis (d)Cosmetic deformity (e)Headache 3.Regarding pathogenesis of Secretory Otitis Media: (a)Malfunctioning eustachian tube plays major role (b)Obstruction of Eustachian tube creates positive pressure in middle ear cleft (c) Middle ear mucosa shows hypersecretory activity (d)Secreted fluid may be of mucoid consistency 4.Which of the following is an indication of septoplasty? (a)Deviated nasal septum with nasal obstruction (b)Chronic sinusitis (c) Sluder’s neuralgia (d)Nasal polyp (e)Nasopharyngeal tonsils 5.Choose the incorrect statement regarding tracheostomy procedure: (a)Usual incision is made above the level of the thyroid isthmus (b)Tracheoesophagal fistula can occur as a consequence of a deep incision (c)If a cuffed tube is used,it should be periodically deflated after procedure (d)Skin incision should not be sutured tightly after the procedure 6.A 19 year old patient comes to you with an ulcer on the tongue and lips,which suddenly appeared 2 days ago and upon inspection are covered with pseudomembrane.You suspect : (a)Apthous ulcer (b)Erythema Multiformes (c)Ranula (d)Erythroplakia 7.Which one of the following is an indication to perform tracheostomy: (a)Ludwig’s Angina (b)Cut throat injury (c)Bilateral choanal atresia (d)Complications from rheumatoid arthritis (e)All of the above 8.Select the incorrect statement regarding hairy tongue: (a)Occurs in filiform papillae (b)Can be treated with hydrogen peroxide (c)Vitamin deficiency is one of the causes (d)It is so named due to the abnormal presence of minute hair follicles on dorsum of tongue (e)Chromogenic bacteria are involved 9.All of the following are Intermediate complication of tracheostomy except : (a) Displacement of tracheostomy tube (b)Tracheosophageal fistula (c) Respiratory apnea (d) Tracheal stenosis (e) Blockage of tube by secretions 10.The causative organism of the hand,foot and mouth disease is: (a)Aspergillus flavus (b)Histoplasma capsulatum (c) Stachybotrys chartarum (d)Candida Albicans (e)Coxsackie A virus

Solved paper of second year MBBS test

Questions; Q1. Peritoneum covers following structures except: A. seminal vesicle B. urinary bladder C. prostrate gland D. rectum e. non of them Q2. levator Ani takes origin from? A. body of pubis B. ischial spine C. anterior superior iliac spine D. both A and B Q3. which of the following structures are in contact with the perineal body? A. superficial transverse perineal muscle B. prostrate gland C. levator ani muscle D. deep transverse perineal muscle E. all of them Q4. Regarding urinary bladder: A. its abdominal in infants B. entirely a pelvic organ in adults C. has a capacity to store more than 1 liter urine normally D. neck lies superiorly E. all of them Q5. choose the false statement regarding empty urinary bladder A. pyramidal in shape B. base lies on posterior side C. apex lies behind the upper margin of symphysis pubis D. part of superio lateral surface always lies in the epigastrium E. both C and D. Q6. Micturition: A. is desire of urination(passing the urine) B. is assisted by abdominal muscles too C. controlled by contraction of sphincter urethrae muscle D. sympathetic impulses carried by hypogastric plexus E. all of the above Q7. most common cause of urine retention in males A. enlargement of prostrate B. urethritis C. herpes D. prostratis. Q8. macula densa is found in A. proximal convulated tubules B. distal convulated tubules C. loop of henle D. all of the above Q9. whats not true for JG apparatus A. lies at vascular pole of renal corpuscle B. JG cells help in regulating blood pressure C. JG cells are found in afferent arterioles D. mesengial cells are found throughout the nephron E. non of them Q10. columnar epithelium can be found in which part of the nephron A. parietal layer of bowman's capsule B. PCT C. proximal straight tubule D. loop of henle E. DCT.